Sermon Audio Archive

What Must I Do To Be Saved?

  

FROM: 3/17/02 Radio Program

Question: "The Bible talks about being baptized for the dead. Explain this."

Answer:

First, understand the context of I Corinthians 15:

1. Paul declares Christ resurrected from the dead, witnessed by the apostles, and by over 500 people (v. 1-11).

2. Paul then chastises those who were teaching that Christ had not resurrected, and declares the consequences if Christ was not raised (v. 12-19).

3. Yet, Christ was resurrected, and so also shall men be resurrected one day (v. 20-23).

4. Paul then continues in a discussion of what will happen at the last day, when death will finally be destroyed (v. 24-28).

Having said these things, he asks the question: "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? Why are they then baptized for the dead?" (KJV). The word "for" occurring twice in verse 29 comes from the word "huper" in the Greek, and means "on account of." (Other verses using this term: Acts 15:26; Romans 1:5.) In other words, Paul is stating the fact that some in Corinth had been baptized "on account of the dead ones." Some people who had died left such an influence on the living during their life, that there were some being baptized into Christ after having witnessed their godly life. So, Paul is asking why men were doing this if it is true that the dead are not raised, and these people basically followed Christ for nothing (ADD to this the reasons from verses 13-18).

While this is the basis of the question asked, verse 29 alone is not the entire statement. Rather, Paul makes a progressive statement, beginning in verse 29 and ending in verse 32. It reads thusly,

"Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead? And why stand we in jeopardy every hour? I protest by your rejoicing which I have in Christ Jesus our Lord, I die daily. If after the manner of men I have fought with beasts at Ephesus, what advantageth it me, if the dead rise not? let us eat and drink; for tomorrow we die."

Therefore, verses 30-32 continue Paul's line of reasoning. Why have they been baptized when they are drawn into the false belief which says the dead are not raised, as well as the fact that in so doing, they now "stand in jeopardy every hour" (v. 30-31)? In truth, there is no advantage at all if there is no resurrection of the dead, so Paul ends this statement by saying, "let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die" (v. 32).

As simply put as I know how, this is the answer: Paul is chastising some people's inconsistency in verses 29-32. If there is no resurrection, look at the consequences (v. 13-19), and consider the fact that if there is no resurrection, why have some been so influenced by those who have died to be baptized themselves? Especially when at the current time it brought about nothing but hardships, and in the end, (according to them), at death, there was nothing, anyway.

In truth, there was as great advantage to being in Christ, and because of the resurrection:

1. It was a great thing that the influence of those who had died still continued (Revelation 14:13; I Timothy 5:25a).

2. Their standing "in jeopardy every hour" had eternal benefits and eternal hope waiting for them. (I Peter 1:3-4)

3. There is great advantage to living in Christ (v. 32).

4. It is not: "Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die," but it is: "For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain" (Philippians 1:21).

I know some people (Mormons especially) misuse and misinterpret this verse to say that one can be baptized "for" someone else. As we see, in context, this is wrong. Paul was not teaching this. Further, look at what such a doctrine does to other Scriptures:

1. It contradicts every passage that says we are individually responsible for our own sins (Ezekiel 18:4, 20; Colossians 3:25; Acts 10:35; etc.)

2. It takes away man's free will. Man has a choice of whether to obey or disobey in his life. Yet, this doctrine attempts to circumvent the individual's free-will as well as God's justice. It says, "Even though you did wrong in this life and refused the Lord, too bad, we have someone who will be baptized on your behalf and you are saved, and God, now you have to accept this one who reviled you and blasphemed and was disobedient to you all through this earth-life."

3. It contradicts Hebrews 9:27; II Corinthians 6:2; Acts 22:16; etc., suggesting some get a "second chance" to be saved after their death.

4. It contradicts Ephesians 4:5, and teaches another baptism. Paul said there's one, but the Mormon position has given us another - you can either be baptized while you are living, or have someone be baptized for you after you're dead.

The Bible is its own best commentary, and the best thing we can do is to read the Bible and interpret it in its context. Allow God to speak and leave my thoughts/opinions out of it. (Romans 3:4)

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